Marbury v. Madison mayhem!
March 2, 2009 1:01 PM
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Either I have found a secret flaw in the opinion, or I am misunderstanding something major about Marbury v. Madison. The later is more likely, being as this would have been brought up before as one of the most important SCOTUS cases... but I can't find it anywhere!
Okay, so the basic opinion of Marbury goes:
The constitution only lets us use original jurisdiction in cases with public officials, advisors, and consuls. Otherwise we need to use appellate jurisdiction only. (Article 3 of the constitution)
Issuing a writ of mandamus, as it is in this case brought straight to the Supreme Court and not appealed up from a lower court, original jurisdiction.
In this case we do not have original jurisdiction, so the law giving us the right to issue the writ in this case (Section 13 of the Judiciary Act of 1789) is unconstitutional.
Therefore, when an Act of Congress is unconstitutional, we the Supreme Court have the right to issue it void. Voila, judicial review.
BUT!
Marbury, according to the earlier part of the decision, had legally gotten the job of Justice of the Peace as soon as Adams had signed the paper, even though it never got delivered. Isn't that a public official?
And even if this didn't count because of the ultimate ruling of the court, not enforcing the position, Madison was still the secretary of state to Jefferson at the time of the case.
So isn't this a case concerning public official, advisors, or consuls?
So didn't the court have original jurisdiction?
So the Act of 1789 wasn't unconstitutional?
So...
The whole case falls apart from there. Did Chief Justice Marshall fudge this so he could outline the Court Power of Judicial Review? Or so he could rule against Marbury and avoid pissing off Jefferson?
Or am I missing the correct definition of public officials, advisors, and consuls, and therefore the times when the court has original jurisdiction? I read that the court RARELY ever uses it today, but back in the day people went less on precedent and more on the newly formed constitution. And at least to me, the constitution doesn't contradict this law.
Please! I am but a lowly law student. Will some legal scholar please clarify this for me? I can hardly write a long paper on the case history if I disagree with the ruling fundamentally.
posted by shadowfelldown to law & government (8 comments total)
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As Marbury was not an official of that nature, there is nothing wrong with the Court's opinion. I haven't done a WestLaw search here, so I don't have specific citations for you, but if you were to do it yourself you'd be able to confirm this. Your ConLaw book probably explains this as well if you look under the appropriate section.
posted by valkyryn at 1:08 PM on March 2