Money orders, overdrafts, and refunds
March 6, 2007 8:30 AM
Subscribe
Yesterday *my friend* purchased a money order for x dollars with *his* debit card at the post office. He didn't keep in mind that the money order was for y dollars more than what he had in his checking account. Overdraft blues!
But! It seems like maybe he might have just made out like the Monopoly man who gets an bank error in his favor...it's either that, or he's about to get screwed one way or another.
So. Later last night he realized that he had overdrawn by y dollars (and smacked himself around, since his first paycheck came through yesterday and he was going to deposit it today), and he checked his account online. It showed that the debit of x dollars was still processing -- but it also showed a
deposit for y dollars made from the post office. x - y = a balance of zero.
He went to the bank this morning, deposited his first paycheck (which was for a healthy sum of z, which is several times x) and the bank teller (who did not seem to necessarily know what he was talking about) confirmed that a debit charge for x had been made and was still processing but that the y deposit had also gone through and the balance was zero.
The money order had been issued, signed, and sent. My friend wants to know: is the money order as good as currency? Can this accounting error (assuming that's what it is) invalidate that money order that has already been signed and sent? That would be very bad.
My own question is: is it possible that the deposit of y would remain in his account? And that this post office just knocked that amount of y off of the money he actually paid for the money order?
posted by snortlebort to work & money (12 comments total)
posted by TedW at 8:51 AM on March 6, 2007