I have a question for those of those of you well-versed on private health insurance, HIPAA, and prior creditable coverage.
I was downsized out of a job a few months ago. Part of the severance was a continuation of healthcare through the end of January. Before January ended, we started shopping for private healthcare and applied for coverage.
The insurer has been dragging their feet (we are now 16 days without any coverage) and we only now heard back from them this week. In essence, they are proposing coverage that excludes prescription coverage for myself, my wife, and my son. They
will provide prescription coverage for my daughter. Of course, she is the only one in the family not currently on any meds.
Now, I was under the impression that, under HIPAA, they could not exclude coverage for anything which I had prior creditable coverage for. However, this is exactly what it appears the insurer is trying to do.
this faq seems to support my opinion, although the one small mention of private coverage (topmost section) seems somewhat vague about it.
So, I guess I need some opinions from those of you here with any actual experience dealing with these matters. Am I incorrect in my thinking about prior coverage? Or is the insurer betting that I won't check the law?
Thanks,
Jim
posted by mds35 at 8:41 AM on February 16, 2006