How is mortgage interest to a private party treated under the AMT?
April 19, 2014 8:26 PM   Subscribe

In the US tax code (specific to the AMT), is mortgage interest to a private party treated differently than mortgage interest to a bank?

I know that you are not my accountant, and may not even be an accountant. I also know that under the standard US tax code, mortgage interest to a private party (for example, a seller funded sale) is treated pretty much the same as a regular bank funded mortgage. I have heard that under the AMT this is not the case, and that private party mortgages are excluded from the AMT deduction. Is that the case, and is there any documentation online one way or the other on this?
posted by true to Work & Money (2 answers total) 1 user marked this as a favorite
Nope, it's the same.
posted by jpe at 4:09 AM on April 20

Home equity loans are treated differently, fwiw.
posted by jpe at 4:19 AM on April 20

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