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August 30, 2005 7:41 PM
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In an Allstate commercial I have seen, the narrator tells a tale of a car that smashes into a house. The narrator continues to explain that the family got sued by the driver of the car.
Can any lawyer-types out there explain to me how this is legally possible?
To me (someone completely unaffiliated with anything having to do with the law), this seems odd - how can it be possibly legal for the driver of the car to sue the family, although they had no wrongdoing? I can't find the commercial online, and I'm pretty sure that's what was said in the commercial. If I'm wrong on any accounts, please correct me accordingly. Thank you in advance.
posted by itchie to law & government (17 comments total)
Let's see - my tort law is rusty, but, if the homeowner did not properly maintain the state of a driveway, for example, making it super slippery, and the driver did nothing wrong in entering said driveway (i.e. not trespassing etc.) - say to deliver a package - then general occupier's liability would seem to allow the driver to sue the homeowner - akin to a person slipping on an icy walkway to the front door. Other examples may be possible.
posted by birdsquared at 7:59 PM on August 30, 2005