Did the Constitution of the Confederate States of America mandate the institution of slavery in its territories? More information, and my own layman's examination of the Confederate Constitution, within.
I read an article a few days ago (I can't recall where) that claimed one of the surest proofs that the United States' Civil War was specifically about slavery, rather than the southerners' claim of "states' rights" was that the Confederate Constitution was a direct copy of the U.S. Constitution in many respects, but deviated most notably in mandating the states not infringe on the right to own slaves... thus further infringing on the sovereignty of the individual states.
seems a bit unclear over whether this is actually the case, perhaps due to the effects of partisan editors, so I've moved on to studying the actual text
Article I, Section 9, Clauses 1 & 4 clearly authorize the Confederate (federal) government to ban the international slave trade, while eliminating any basis on which they (again, the federal government) could ban or impair domestic slavery. One assumes that this would also protect right of sale, i.e. the domestic slave trade.
Article IV, Section 2, Clauses 1 & 3 are where things become kind of dicey.
Clause 1 clearly prohibits any "free" Confederate state (if there could truly be such a state) from not respecting property rights of owners to slaves in transit or sojourn, and Clause 3 supports this by prohibiting forfeiture of slaves as a criminal or civil penalty, provided the slaves have been "lawfully carried" into said state.
Clause 3 also provides that escaped slaves cannot become free merely by escaping to a free state.
By use of the terminology "lawfully carried" in Clause 3, however, the confederate constitution seems to support the possibility that a free state could require forfeiture of slaves within its borders if it is proven that they were carried unlawfully, that (for example) their presence in the state is not "transit" or "sojourn".
The meaning here seems to hinge on the precise definition of the word sojourn. The Israelites (to use the terminology present in the King James Version of the Bible), after all, "sojourned" in slavery in Egypt for 430 years. Could slaves then be bought in a slave state, and used as labor indefinitely in a free one?
If I read Article IV, Section 3, Clauses 1 & 3 correctly, free states could volunteer to join the Confederacy, and their "free" status would thus be grandfathered in with the limitations expressed above, but states and territories conquered or annexed by the Confederacy would join as slave states.