Was this dude my great-grandfather...or an IMPOSTOR?!
September 25, 2007 12:15 PM
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If my maternal grandfather was my (alleged?) great-grandfather's biological son, why would his last name be different from both of his parents'?
In my great-grandfather's obituary (1896-1960), which I found online and am positive is the right person, his children (who were my great-aunts/uncles & grandfather) were listed.
All male/unmarried children of my great-grandfather listed in that obit have a completely different last name from that of my great-grandfather & great-grandmother. This completely different last name is my mother's maiden name.
So, it seems like he is probably not really my great-grandfather after all, and that maybe these were children from a previous marriage of my great-grandmother's.
I'm trying to figure out if there was any reason why they would change the last names of their children if they are, in fact, both his biological parents. My Google attempts turned up nothing but discussions on giving a child both parents' last names.
So...is there a reason why a pioneering family in the US Northwest (actually, in a territory at the time) would change the last names of both of their children?
It is definitely not to make the name more "Americanized". My great-grandparents' last names was very "typical" American, it's a normal English word, actually. My grandfather's last name, however, seems to be German.
Thoughts?
posted by dumbledore69 to society & culture (11 comments total)
As for reasons, perhaps he didn't like his parents and wanted to honour another relative. Maybe his parent's name was German and was changed when he was born or when they emigrated and he decided to change it back.
posted by acoutu at 12:30 PM on September 25, 2007