How do you access MS Access in a different domain?
March 15, 2007 7:50 AM
I'm trying to get my head around some Microsoft Access security issues, and could use some help.
My company has a website (on IIS6). A portion of that website (written in ASP), pulls data from a Microsoft Access database, located on the same server.
The ASP web site is now moving to a data centre, to a server in a different Active Directory domain (no trust yet exists between the two domains), but the Access database has to stay where it is (other applications reference it).
Previously, the "anonymous access" internet account had permission to read/write to the Microsoft Access database. But now the "anonymous access" account is in a different AD domain, and as such can't be granted read/write access to the Access file (unless I'm very much mistaken).
So, my question is - what is the quickest/simplest way to grant the ASP application access to the Microsoft Access file? Is there someway I can specify the Active Directory account to authenticate as in the connection string or something?
Thanks.
My company has a website (on IIS6). A portion of that website (written in ASP), pulls data from a Microsoft Access database, located on the same server.
The ASP web site is now moving to a data centre, to a server in a different Active Directory domain (no trust yet exists between the two domains), but the Access database has to stay where it is (other applications reference it).
Previously, the "anonymous access" internet account had permission to read/write to the Microsoft Access database. But now the "anonymous access" account is in a different AD domain, and as such can't be granted read/write access to the Access file (unless I'm very much mistaken).
So, my question is - what is the quickest/simplest way to grant the ASP application access to the Microsoft Access file? Is there someway I can specify the Active Directory account to authenticate as in the connection string or something?
Thanks.
sp_addlinkedserver [ @server = ] 'server'
[ , [ @srvproduct = ] 'product_name' ]
[ , [ @provider = ] 'provider_name' ]
[ , [ @datasrc = ] 'data_source' ]
[ , [ @location = ] 'location' ]
[ , [ @provstr = ] 'provider_string' ]
[ , [ @catalog = ] 'catalog' ]
posted by sluglicker at 9:01 AM on March 15, 2007
[ , [ @srvproduct = ] 'product_name' ]
[ , [ @provider = ] 'provider_name' ]
[ , [ @datasrc = ] 'data_source' ]
[ , [ @location = ] 'location' ]
[ , [ @provstr = ] 'provider_string' ]
[ , [ @catalog = ] 'catalog' ]
posted by sluglicker at 9:01 AM on March 15, 2007
Usually the answer here is "use a real database." That is far and away the best way to handle this.
Is it asp.net or "classic" asp? If .NET you could run your data calls through a webservice in the domain that contains the db. So keep data code in Domain A, and have the web app run in Domain B.
posted by mrbugsentry at 9:01 AM on March 15, 2007
Is it asp.net or "classic" asp? If .NET you could run your data calls through a webservice in the domain that contains the db. So keep data code in Domain A, and have the web app run in Domain B.
posted by mrbugsentry at 9:01 AM on March 15, 2007
Except that the first DATA step generates a data set containing a covariance matrix for the ARRIVING and LEAVING variables. The covariance is:
|1 .7|
|.7 1|
Otherwise, not a bad idea.
posted by sluglicker at 9:12 AM on March 15, 2007
|1 .7|
|.7 1|
Otherwise, not a bad idea.
posted by sluglicker at 9:12 AM on March 15, 2007
This thread is closed to new comments.
"Provider=MS Remote;Remote Server=http://www.xxx.com;Remote Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=xxx.mdb;uid=xxx\xxx;Password=xxx"
posted by chill at 8:36 AM on March 15, 2007