Why is this not enough to call the election results into question?
November 16, 2016 12:44 PM   Subscribe

The head of the NSA openly described the Wikileaks election leaks as being perpetrated deliberately by a known nation-state to influence the election. Why is this not enough to invalidate the election results?

Help me understand how the US election results can be accepted when there is evidence that Russia acted to influence the election. Is there no legal or governmental policy in this area? No recourse to, I don't know, re-do the election?
posted by StrawberryPie to Law & Government

This post was deleted for the following reason: Heya, it looks like this is using a spare account to get around the week wait between questions. -- cortex

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