Subscribev1+2 = (v1+v2) / (c2+v1v2).One mile per hour is 1.5×10-9c. So if your speeds are convenient to talk about in miles per hour, the approximation (c2+v1v2) = c2 is good to fifteen or eighteen decimal places. Usually we measure speeds to three decimal places or so, and what happens in the fifteenth decimal place isn't interesting. So your finely-honed intuition tells you that v1+2 = v1+v2 is mostly right.
v1+2 = (small×10-5c) / c2 + (c2 + small ×2×10-5 + very small ×10-10).Now that we're talking about relativistic speeds, the pretty good approximation is (c2+v1v2) = 2c2. Adding c to c gives 2c/2c2=c.
v1+2 = c2 × (v1+v2) / (c2+v1v2).This is why I usually use feet per nanosecond, so c = 1, argh.
In 2003, two-thirds of the superconducting magnets in the Tevatron’s six-kilometer ring quenched at the same time. The beam drilled a hole in one collimator and created a 30-centimeter groove in another. That accident, while serious, was the only one in the accelerator’s 20-year history, and the machine was back up and running within two weeks. Could something similar happen on a larger scale at the LHC?
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Using the formula from the Wikipedia article and simplifing 99.999% to just 99%, we can take w to be 0.99c, v to be -0.99c (it's moving in the opposite direction), and come up with w' = 1.98 / (1 - (-.9801) / (1^2)) = 99.9949% the speed of light.
For #2, the huge magnetic fields and freezing your hand off would probably be a much bigger problem than the kinetic energy of the beam itself. Each proton is accelerated to 7 TeV (see Wikipedia, which is actually an extremely small amount of energy - 1.12E-6 Joules.
posted by 0xFCAF at 3:54 AM on September 10, 2008