FIFA World Cup
June 16, 2006 5:51 PM   Subscribe

FIFA World Cup -- in today's ARG SMT 6-0 drubbing it was clear when viewed slow motion on TiVo that goals #3 and #4 came off the feet of the opposing players. Question -- does anyone care? The players actedf the same and the announcers didn't note any difference. Is this standard operating procedure when the scoring is "close enough" by an offensive player?
posted by queue_strategy to Sports, Hobbies, & Recreation (13 answers total)
In most goal sports, an own goal is awarded to the closest player of the opposite team.

Football (soccer) is different. An own goal is awarded to whomever scored it -- so, yes, you could really crank up your personal scoring record with several own goals. In deflections, the goal is awarded to the player who drove the ball to the goal if the ball would have hit the goal without the deflection (note that the possibility of a goalie saving the ball doesn't enter into it.) If the line of the ball would have missed, the goal is an own goal, awarded to the defender who deflected it.

FIFA has a policy of limiting own goals to the truly own goal, and often reverses a scoring call of an own goal on video review after the game.

The ultimate loser has to be Stef Van Den Buys, who notched three own goals in one match.
posted by eriko at 6:03 PM on June 16, 2006

This article talks about own goals. Just hitting the opponent on the way isn't enough. It has to be going wide of the goal and they redirect it so it goes in.

Given that, it still doesn't matter that much. An own goal is still a goal.
posted by smackfu at 6:04 PM on June 16, 2006

In soccer, any time the ball goes into your goal, it's a point for the other side. It doesn't matter how it got there.

Usually when it goes in after last striking one of your own players who deflects it seriously, it's referred to as an "own goal", which is noteworthy mostly because it represents a embarassment for the defensive player who loused it up.

But that has no significance in terms of the actual game. All goals are goals, irrespective of how the ball ended up in the net or who touched it last.

(Or am I misunderstanding your question?)
posted by Steven C. Den Beste at 6:06 PM on June 16, 2006

Didn't know this, but in chat, a friend tells me that in the Paraguy-England match in this years World Cup, the score was 1-0 for England, and it was credited to Carlos Gamarra as an own goal, who deflected a Beckham kick. It was though that it would be ruled a Beckham goal after review, but FIFA let the call stand.
posted by eriko at 6:08 PM on June 16, 2006

The Paraguay team captain gave away an own-goal in the game against England. It's all the worse because it's the quickest one in World Cup history, happening in the 3rd minute of the game.
posted by Steven C. Den Beste at 6:12 PM on June 16, 2006

Rats; beaten to the post twice!
posted by Steven C. Den Beste at 6:12 PM on June 16, 2006

Also, the BBC says that FIFA wants to award any disputed goals to the offensive side when possible:

Before the tournament, Fifa said that when possible, it was keen to award any disputed goals, like England's against Paraguay, to an attacking player.

A Technical Study Group will sit and judge when there is any dispute over who scored.

In the case of England's goal, the group decided that the goal should go down as an own goal by Carlos Gamarra, who deflected the ball in, rather than be given to David Beckham, who supplied the free-kick.
posted by meerkatty at 6:14 PM on June 16, 2006

FIFA has a policy of limiting own goals to the truly own goal, and often reverses a scoring call of an own goal on video review after the game.

Further to what eriko said, the Canadian halftime commentators said that the goal credit is decided by officials on the field, and never reversed. I thought that sounded strange, but..
posted by Chuckles at 6:55 PM on June 16, 2006

But contradicting that, we have the decision on one of Ronaldo's goals, which has been reversed..
posted by Chuckles at 7:15 PM on June 16, 2006

Here is the Beckham goal, and a 3D recreation, and it obviously wasn't an own goal.

It is all very confusing.. I get the feeling that grey areas are expected - they are 'part of football' - kind of like the criteria for deleting FPPs..
posted by Chuckles at 7:25 PM on June 16, 2006

I think one needs to decide if that goal would have been scored if the defensive player had not been involved.

Would Beckham have scored if another player hadn't touched to ball? Hard to say.

Doesn't really matter as a goal is a goal. It only matters statistically. I suppose it's like deciding if a baseball player gets credit for a hit when an outfielder errors.
posted by DieHipsterDie at 7:36 PM on June 16, 2006

Argentina's third goal was definitely heading back out (after it hit the post) until it hit the defender. It should have been given as an own goal, but for some reason it wasn't.

The fourth (poor quality you tube video) wasn't an own goal: it looks to me like the Argentina chap got the last touch.

And these things do matter to some people: imagine you'd put a bet on that Beckham would score first for England against Paraguay, and some pedant comes along and gives it to the defender dude.
posted by Robot Rowboat at 6:05 AM on June 17, 2006

Chiming in on the player reactions: of course the player on the attacking team desperately wants credit for the goal; the only person who is more interested in that credit being awarded is the defender who really, really doesn't want it. In a case where there's any doubt, it is curmudgeonly to rule an own goal.

A very high proportion of goals brush the goalie's fingertips or are almost but not quite blocked by a heroic effor from a defender. Nobody wants those to be own goals.
posted by nowonmai at 6:30 AM on June 17, 2006

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