Which is correct?

October 25, 2021 2:42 PM

Which is correct: "None of the contracts is exclusive" or "None of the contracts are exclusive" ...?
posted by cmcmcm to Writing & Language (9 answers total)

"A Word, Please: None is, or none are? Both work"

“‘None’ has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is,” Merriam-Webster’s notes. “If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb. Both are acceptable beyond serious criticism.”

In this particular case (and limited context), "none are" sounds better to me, for whatever that's worth.
posted by jedicus at 2:46 PM on October 25, 2021 [12 favorites]

Technically speaking, the subject "none" is singular, so the correct construction is "none...is." Singular subject, singular form of the verb.

This sounds odd to many English speakers, so in colloquial English you will usually hear or read "None...are."

If I were writing a formal document, I would use "is." However, if I were reading a document that said "None of the contracts are" I would not flag it as a serious error.
posted by hurdy gurdy girl at 2:47 PM on October 25, 2021 [5 favorites]

Or what jedicus said! And I did not know "none" can be considered either plural or singular since that's not what I was taught, but I'm happy to see more people embracing that.
posted by hurdy gurdy girl at 2:48 PM on October 25, 2021

In legal writing I usually see "none is." I was taught that "none" should be treated the same as "not one." I.e., "Not one of the contracts is exclusive."
posted by Mid at 2:50 PM on October 25, 2021 [7 favorites]

It's one way in the US (are) and the other in the UK (is). I can't speak for other English-speaking countries.
posted by DarlingBri at 2:56 PM on October 25, 2021 [1 favorite]

One explanation is that of agreement attraction to the nearest substantive:

"Of these contracts, not a single one is exclusive..."
"Of these contracts, not one is exclusive..."
"None of these contracts are exclusive..."
"None of them are exclusive..."
"Not one is exclusive..."
"Not one of these contracts is exclusive..."

In the last example, the emphatic "not one" takes back control of the verb.
posted by dum spiro spero at 2:57 PM on October 25, 2021 [6 favorites]

“One” is singular, so therefore “not one” is *not* singular, and therefor uses “are”.

dum sipro spero’s reply above is a very thorough explanation of what feels right to me in various circumstances, and I have a very strong compass for “rightness” in English grammar. My compass isn’t always correct, but it is very opinionated.
posted by itesser at 3:35 PM on October 25, 2021

Here's a good explanation: "If it suggests "none of them," it's plural: None of the fans are fighting. None are excited enough. If it means "none of it," it's singular: None of the bout was seen in Pittsburgh. None was worth broadcasting."

In this case, "none of the contracts" suggests "none of them," so it should be, "none of the contracts are exclusive."
posted by pinochiette at 6:59 PM on October 25, 2021 [5 favorites]

If you're asking because it's a sentence you need to write, I offer "All the contracts are non-exclusive" or "The contracts are all non-exclusive" as a way round the problem.
posted by ManyLeggedCreature at 5:55 AM on October 27, 2021 [1 favorite]