Is this argument a logical fallacy?
August 14, 2017 12:39 PM Subscribe
" Because children and innocents all over the old are killed by America in foreign wars etc. , grieving for "white" Americans or Europeans ( while NOT grieving of all the other nameless innocents who are killed) is hypocritical." This statement is obviously problematic and not entirely reasonable but I'm trying to determine if it falls within some logically false argument, I can't quite think of one it fits into. Thanks for the help.