Obscure NBA rule question regarding timeouts

April 4, 2011 9:16 AM

Obscure NBA rule question regarding timeouts

Scenario: Lamar Odom just made a freethrow and now Paul Pierce has the ball out of bounds and is ready to throw it to Rajon Rando.

Question - Can the Lakers call a timeout at this point? I know they can in college but is the NBA rules the same? My friend says no, that it's not a deadball (which is the only time you can call a timeout-I think). I couldn't find anything definitive anywhere on the interweb. Maybe someone with better Google skills can help me out.

Thanks in advance - a free lunch is at stake.

posted by armlock to Sports, Hobbies, & Recreation (5 answers total)

I'm pretty sure you have to possess the ball in order to call a time out. So if it's Celtic's ball (on the inbound), then no, the Lakers can't call a time out.
posted by shew at 9:29 AM on April 4, 2011

Best answer: Check section VI. It should be in there somewhere... www.nba.com/media/rule_book_2006-07.pdf
posted by Capt.DooDooFace at 9:31 AM on April 4, 2011

NBA rulebook: Section 5 Scoring and Timing

Teams can only call timeout if they are in possession of the ball or in a dead-ball situation. In that scenario, the Lakers cannot call timeout. If, however, there was a jump-ball, for example, either team could call timeout.
posted by paroxysm at 9:35 AM on April 4, 2011

Response by poster: Thank you all!
posted by armlock at 10:08 AM on April 4, 2011

Not so clear:

RULE NO. 6-PUTTING BALL IN PLAY-LIVE/DEAD BALL

Section IV-Dead Ball
a. The ball becomes dead and/or remains dead when the following occurs:
...
(3) Following a successful field goal or free throw that will remain in play, until player possession out-of-bounds.
posted by -->NMN.80.418 at 1:24 PM on April 4, 2011