It is a widely quoted statistic that, with "perfect use", condoms have a 3% failure rate. My question - these 3% of uses that result in pregnancy, is it because the condom breaks, or because of some invisible factory defect? Put another way - if you follow all of the "best practices," and, when you're done, the condom hasn't broken, is it safe to assume that it worked?
posted by afroblanca
on May 28, 2005 -
13 answers
