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For the lawyers out there: if a family physician has never performed (or offered to perform) a yearly rectal exam on a 50+ year old, are there possible grounds for malpractice if the patients develops rectal cancer 10-15 years on? Does the fact that the patient is part of a population that has an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer matter? [more inside]
posted by greatgefilte on Jan 5, 2006 - 14 answers

A question about the legal issues involved in setting up a site similar to epinions, only for physicians rather than products... [more inside]
posted by greatgefilte on Aug 19, 2005 - 5 answers