What's the standard charge against Standard Oil with regard to railroad rebates?
March 14, 2008 11:12 AM
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What's the standard charge against Standard Oil with regard to railroad rebates?
I'm diving into the history of antitrust, and a repeated charge made against Standard Oil is that they were such a dominant shipper, that they were able to treat railroads very harshly.
From what I've seen, they got huge volume discounts, in addition to a discount that was designed to be a percentage of the railroad's other business (so designed, apparently, to make sure that the railroads bled everything they could without going under). This latter behavior is called "drawbacks."
(The railroads later sought rate regulation with open arms as a means to prevent themselves from giving such handsome discounts: an instance where the regulated industry players think they can make more money if they're told they're not allowed to charge under a certain amount.)
Everything I've read about SO and the railroads either defends SO's behavior as legal, rational economic behavior, or attacks it but without much basis. (See what they did? See how big they were? That's bad!)
I am looking to read a more reasoned attack on SO, justifying the antitrust actions, public outcry, and the breakup of that concern. Can you point me to sources that relate the traditional charge in a thorough way, countering the defenses of SO made by Chicago-style economists?
posted by yesno to law & government (3 comments total)
AIUI, what it boiled down to was that SO was acting rationally (in the economics sense) and legally (mostly?) to maintain some monopsony power over shipping, but this was perceived as not being beneficial to the country, and so we got antitrust regulations.
posted by hattifattener at 11:55 AM on March 14, 2008