Why do martinis have much less vermouth now than in the past?
June 16, 2004 7:54 PM
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Who can explain the evolution of the martini and "martini"? [leave your thoughts inside, where you'll find more of mine].
In days gone by,as I understand it, martinis had gin and vermouth in a 2:1 ratio, depending on dryness. Now much less vermouth is used. Also, it seems that an inordinate number of drinks that just happen to be served in cocktail glasses are being called "martinis". I just moved to a trendier neighborhood and all over the place I see cocktail menus with sections devoted to martinis, most of which are completely unrelated to historical martinis (one helpfully included a listing for the classic martini, which apparently includes no gin). Most of these I assume are recently made-up drinks that get called martinis for cachet, but some of them are pre-existing classic cocktails in their own right—twice now I've seen the sidecar listed as a martini. Anyone know either why the martini progressed to being practically straight gin (or vodka), or why it now seems to be a catch-all generic term for "drink served in a cocktail glass"?
posted by kenko to food & drink (31 comments total)
1 user marked this as a favorite
2) People don't actually like how vermouth tastes.
3) Bartenders get better tips if people like their drinks.
That's pretty much all the needed factors to transform a "martini" into a drink that doesn't have any vermouth.
posted by smackfu at 8:10 PM on June 16, 2004