In the 1500s and 1600s, why did Americans die from European diseases rather than the other way around?
August 12, 2007 9:37 PM
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Huge numbers of people living in the Americas died from diseases when Europeans started coming over. It is always stated that this is because the immune systems of the Americans had not contacted the European diseases before. Why did the same thing not happen in reverse? Why weren't 90% of some European settlements wiped out from an unfamiliar American disease?
posted by Hubajube to science & nature (21 comments total)
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posted by k8t at 9:40 PM on August 12, 2007 [1 favorite]