What's with this inverse correlation?
September 21, 2006 1:29 PM
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I recently increased my dosage of lamictal from 100mg/day to 200mg/day. I was prescribed 100mg pills, whereas before I had 25mg pills. For a month's supply of 100mg/daily in 25mg units, the bill sent to my insurance was over $500. For 200mg in 100mg units, it was just under $300.
Why would more of the active ingredient cost less? I know the difference in pill count can't account for that much of a differential. What's the creative economics here?
posted by jammer to health (8 comments total)
posted by lockle at 1:48 PM on September 21, 2006