Business loophole in residential zoning?
August 31, 2006 10:22 AM Subscribe
So when is a business not a business? This relates to zoning regulations, and what seems to be a way around a prohibition of businesses in residential neighborhoods.
posted by tommyD to law & government (9 answers total)
Our little town has R-1 zoned neighborhoods where no more than two unrelated people may live in a residence, and a business may be operated in a residence only if the owner of the business lives there, and only the owner’s immediate family may be employees.
But what happens when a corporation buys a house and rents it to disabled folks (or their guardians, more likely), and another corporation then provides caregiver services to those who live in the house, but both corporations are owned by the same person?
The owner does not live in the house, and the employees of the caregiver service are not the owner’s family members.
Is this defacto, a single business, or has the owner found a valid loophole around residential zoning rules?
And what if the corporation that owns the property rents to the corporation that provides the caregiver service rather than the service’s clients?
There is a whole ‘nother issue regarding federal law and discrimination against disabled folks, but I’d rather leave that for another day…