does 51% sharehold mean control?
May 17, 2006 2:02 PM
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In a UK company with 3 shareholders, with percentages 51%, 24.5%, 24.5%. Can the person with the majority force the other 2 holders to sell-out ?
Myself and my Brother had an idea for setting up a new business venture but we needed investment, a third person offered investment on the condition we signed a contract saying that he was a 51% shareholder, with me and my brother having 24.5% each.
The reason he stated was that without him having 51% that me and my brother could gang up on him in regards to business decisions. The contract does state that "profit shares" will be split equally into 33.3% each.
However my concern is that with him owning 51% of the company he could force me and my brother out. Is this possible ?
is there anything else i should be looking out for in the contract ?
posted by toocan to law & government (16 comments total)
Who are you going to trust with your livelyhood?
posted by Kickstart70 at 2:08 PM on May 17, 2006