Is it ever right to allow a population to starve?
May 1, 2006 5:19 AM
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Please help correct my cold utilitarian calculus: is it ever right to allow a population to starve?
A Michael Buerk BBC documentary on Ethiopia a while back said something along the lines of having "merely created a nation of half-starved beggars" by aiding them during the 1980s famine. The underlying hypothesis seemed to be this:
If a country of 15 million people can support itself in food most years, but only support 10 million during a drought, then 5 million will starve. However, if an outsider steps in and donates 5 million food rations, the country lives on.
Every 10 years or so the drought recurs, except in the intervening 10 years, the population doubles. Now the country has 30m people, and can only support 10m. So 20 million will starve unless outside aid is delivered.
Another ten years on, 60 million people with food enough for 10. 50 million starve unless food aid is delivered.
At some point, the outsiders will become unwilling or unable to continue supporting the poor country, and no food aid will arrive. If this is 30 years on from the original drought, 110 million people will starve.
So would it have been right to withhold food aid initially, resulting in only 5 million deaths rather than 110 million?
Given that the parameters of this scenario are accurate (population will continue to grow while food is available, food aid will eventually stop), the answer seems to be yes. It doesn't feel right though.
posted by hoverboards don't work on water to religion & philosophy (24 comments total)
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Same answer applies in war-time - if you think a war is worth a life, volunteer
posted by A189Nut at 5:25 AM on May 1, 2006