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February 13, 2006 6:07 PM
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MarxFilter: Trouble understanding the concept of "alienation of labor" in the Manuscripts of 1844. Can anyone explain to me exactly what he means?
Looking for a concise plain-language breakdown of Marx's concept of the alienation of labor. I've been trying to wrap my head around it all day and secondary sources on the internet haven't been very illuminating. I grasp that if labor is occupied in producing an object, that time spent in production comes at the expense of the laborer's own time to pursue what it wishes (be a human). However, with regards to an individuals relationship to the actual object that is produced, in what sense is there alienation? From the objects' uses? Is what Marx implies that in a way a laborer doesn't "understand" the outcome of their work?
As an addendum, if anyone could recommend great secondary texts, please mention as well, as I'm sure this won't be the last question I have on the topic...
posted by lovejones to society & culture (9 comments total)
3 users marked this as a favorite
Let's say you're a baker. You bake bread all day and you sell the loaves to people in your community. Your bread is a reflection of yourself. You take pride in what you do because you are personally responsible for transforming flour, yeast, and water into loaves of bread. Furthermore, you know that the people in your community love your bread because you see them when they come to your bakery to buy it.
Here's where the alienation comes in: Your bakery gets run out of business by an industrial food plant. You're rehired at minimum wage to pour flour into a vat and press a button. You no longer see the product of your labor and you have no contact with your customers. Rather than selling bread to patrons, you are selling your labor force to your boss. Thus, the product of your labor is alien to you, and you have been alienated.
posted by The White Hat at 6:17 PM on February 13, 2006 [2 favorites]