Poor third amendment
August 18, 2014 1:36 PM Subscribe
Has there ever been an American case in which a claim of proscribed use of the military (third amendment, posse comitatus, etc) was pressed in response to an action not carried out by one of the branches answerable to DoD/the National Guard?
If so, was the military status of the alleged bad actor treated as a question of law or a question of fact?
posted by PMdixon to Law & Government (4 answers total) 1 user marked this as a favorite