Is it even possible for this to be an STD?
March 26, 2012 12:02 PM Subscribe
YANMD — girly parts and boy parts edition. Is this even possible for STD's?
posted by anonymous to human relations (33 answers total) 1 user marked this as a favorite
My girlfriend and I have been together for four years now, in a monogamous relationship. We co-habitate, and like to refer to ourselves as 'married-lite'. I have absolutely no reason to believe that she has been unfaithful with me, and I know for a fact that I have not been unfaithful with her. To reiterate as clearly as possible: she is the only person I have been with for four years.
About a month and a half ago, she started complaining of an unusual amount of vaginal discharge. Today, she went to the local PP clinic and was confirmed as having a fairly severe yeast infection. The kicker, however, is that the attendant nurse/physician also noticed a high amount of white blood cells, indicative of an underlying bacterial infection. They gave her some doxycycline, and performed some tests…for STD's!
Now I know that it's probably nothing, that an elevated WBC count doesn't *necessarily* indicate the presence of bacteria, and that — in the event that there are bacteria — plain old BV is pretty commonplace.
That has not stopped me from freaking myself the fuck out.
We don't use barrier protection, as she has an IUD and we are monogamous. I have only ever had sans-condom sex with one person prior to our four years together (though that one person did prove to be unfaithful). I never got tested after that last person…but I never had any symptoms of anything. After a few months clear, the general assumption was "clean," and now it's been five years since that person. Still no signs or symptoms of anything at all.
So now, I am reading all sorts of material online about STD's lying dormant for years, being asymptomatic, etc, etc, and it has got me in full-on panic mode. Is it possible that I have had something for four years, not known it, and it has only just now become an issue? That seems so very incredibly far-fetched as to be completely outside the realm of possibility. I can't for one second believe that she has been with anybody else, and we have had a few pretty serious talks about such. I guess we won't know until tests come back, and my logical self knows that it's probably something mundane…
But what I want to know is… what are the odds? Can this sort of asymptomatic thing really lie dormant for so long? Is really possible for me to not have any presentable symptoms of something like gonorrhea or chlamydia for FOUR YEARS? How likely is it for these infections to live in tandem with a yeast infection? How common is it for a yeast infection to cause elevated WBC count? Please help stop me from hyperventilating here.