Need to find cases of state-sanctioned development projects against local consent, especially if by private for-profit companies
May 13, 2011 12:34 PM Subscribe
I am looking for good examples to cite for a brief section of paper that looks at contemporary debates over development -- specifically examples of economic development projects which have gone ahead against the consent of local people on the grounds that the benefit to the larger society outweighed any detriment to the local people - especially if the development itself was/is carried out by a for-profit company.
posted by jb to education (9 answers total) 3 users marked this as a favorite
The specific example I have of this is the case of Kelo versus the City of New London, where eminent domain was used to seize property against the will of the local people for the benefit of a private development.
I was hoping that mefites who work in the areas of development/popular politics might have other good cases which I can look up which have similar circumstances: state action used to seize property/evict people/subsidize some development which local people protested against, on the grounds that the overall effects on GDP would outweigh detriment to the local people. If these examples are in the context of rural development, that would be great - as I mentioned, I have New London as one example, but I would like to broaden it. I am specifically interested in projects which are aimed at economic development - I am less interested, for example, in the draining of the Iraqi marshes (which was supposedly for security reasons), though if there are other wetlands recently drained to expand agriculture against the will of the local people, I'd love the references (I really should know them, but my head's stuck 400 years ago - I know about the Mississippi delta in the 19th cent, but politics there quite different).
This is in aid of supporting a 1-2 paragraph discussion in a paper on seventeenth century development projects; I was just hoping to find contemporary situations/debates around this question: "is economic growth, even one which benefits a private investor or disproportionately benefits an elite, still such an overall good that it justifies going against the consent of those most directly affected?" to support my point that it's still an unanswered question, or at least not a simply answered question.
Any references for discussion papers on this issue would also be very welcome; I can always use secondary discussion instead of specific examples.