what the hell has happened thus?
June 18, 2009 4:42 AM
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"My air is flung with souls" -- is there a linguistic explanation of this use of the verb "to fling"?
From John Berryman's 127th Dream Song:
...
All souls converge upon a hopeless mote
tonight, as though
the throngs of souls in hopeless pain rise up
to say they cannot care, to say they abide
whatever is to come.
My air is flung with souls which will not stop
and among them hangs a soul that has not died
and refuses to come home.
My basic puzzlement is that I feel that this feels to me like a new sense of the word "to fling", and yet I also feel that to understand it you don't need to go outside the ordinary sense of "to fling".
If "my air is flung with souls" is possible, then "to fling the air with souls" should also be possible. But normally the direct object of fling would be the thing thrown and not the medium in which it is thrown. Is there some standard account of this kind of shift?
But I also kind of feel like something is missing from the active translation "to fling the air with souls". I want to say "to befling the air" might capture this sense of flung better. I don't know. I also feel like maybe the "is flung" usage suggests "is hung". I don't know. If I could formulate my question any clearer I'd look up the answer myself. A google search for "flung with souls" seems to show that souls get flung around quite a good lot -- is there some history of the word that I'm not quite fully aware of?
My question is -- what's up with this? That's the clearest I can really formulate my question.
posted by creasy boy to writing & language (21 comments total)
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posted by creasy boy at 4:47 AM on June 18