I have some questions about torture regarding international and US law, especially the Geneva Conventions and the UNCAT.
This interesting thread led me to look up some things about international law regarding torture, and I was confused about a couple things. I'll tell you what I do understand (please tell me if it's wrong) and what I don't understand (please explain).
As I understand it, the parts of the Geneva Conventions which the US has ratified apply only to the treatment of prisoners of war from countries that obey the strictures of the Geneva Conventions; it is Protocol I, an addition to the Geneva Conventions from the '70s that prohibits torture of prisoners regardless of their previous disregard for the rules of war of the Geneva Conventions. The US has not ratified Protocol I. Thus it appears to me, as distasteful as it is to say, that G.W. Bush was correct when he insisted that the Geneva Conventions do not apply to prisoners rendered to Guantanamo Bay, since it is pretty clear that groups like Al Qaeda and the Taliban do not obey the rules of the Geneva Conventions.
However, the US has signed and ratified the
The UN Convention Against Torture. From a brief reading of that document, it appears that this document prohibits torture of anyone under any circumstances, and it defines torture as follows:
"Any act by which severe pain or suffering, whether physical or mental, is intentionally inflicted on a person for such purposes as obtaining from him or a third person information or a confession, punishing him for an act he or a third person has committed or is suspected of having committed, or intimidating or coercing him or a third person, or for any reason based on discrimination of any kind, when such pain or suffering is inflicted by or at the instigation of or with the consent or acquiescence of a public official or other person acting in an official capacity. It does not include pain or suffering arising only from, inherent in or incidental to lawful sanctions."
That seems entirely unambiguous to me. Is there any legal doubt that this applies to waterboarding?
Is there a reason that I seem to only hear about the Geneva Conventions in relation to the Guantanamo Bay torture issue and never the UNCAT? Am I missing something about the legal nature of the UNCAT?
I'd also like to know how the US Constitution applies to foreigners held by the US: Is there a firmly established precedent that the Constitution only applies to US citizens? The Bill of Rights in the Constitution appears to refer to "persons" rather than "citizens". Why aren't Afghans rendered to Guantanamo Bay considered to be protected by the Constitution?
Thanks for your help MeFi Legal Team!
Note: I don't wish to start a shouting match about the morality of torture - I believe it to be incontrovertibly immoral and unconscionable; this question is strictly about the legal aspect.
It's been discussed a lot.
posted by Houstonian at 7:59 AM on May 13