One is not amused
November 6, 2004 6:00 PM
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"One is not amused..." Personal pronoun, or third person generalisation? [MI]
Having had a (drunken) discussion about this tonight, I hope that MeFites can help put an argument to rest about this specific use of the word "one"...
I take it to be an archaic, or at the least affected, personal pronoun - "One believes this to be the case" meaning "I believe this to be the case."
The drinkers at my table believed it to be a third person generalisation: "If one drinks too much beer, one will get drunk" meaning, "If a person drinks too much beer, they will get drunk."
I disagree with their definition, reading the second example as "If I drink too much beer, I will get drunk, though not everyone else may."
So, does any have any cites or references which can prove one way or the other - is "one" an archaic, affected personal pronoun substitute, or is it shorthand for "a person" in general - a third person pronoun that matches its third person construction?
posted by benzo8 to writing & language (9 comments total)
posted by vers at 6:29 PM on November 6, 2004