Neither a borrower nor a lender be...
February 5, 2009 11:13 PM
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Speak to me of deficits. If a country goes into deficit by selling bonds to other countries' foreign banks, is that debt ever used as a geopolitical bargaining chip? Why/why not?
For example, say China and the US had some kind of diplomatic squabble: couldn't China just wave a hand at its giant pile of US treasury bonds and say, "Hmm. So you don't want us building a new military base in the Pacific, huh? You sure? Huh. Guess we'll have to start recalling that $681 billion you owe us- Oh, what's that...you changed your mind?"
I'm not specifically concerned about the above situation, in fact I'm sure it's extremely unlikely, not least because of the US's military power. I'm just curious about why, when so much of geopolitics depends on the complex power ratios between state actors, foreign debt is rarely mentioned as part of the equation. Will the GFC change that? Or have I missed something?
Enlighten me, hive mind.
posted by [ixia] to law & government (11 comments total)
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posted by [ixia] at 11:16 PM on February 5