How do I make sense of the "moneyline" form of betting odds for mixed martial arts?
I'm trying to understand the way that betting on mixed martial arts works. I have read the description
here, so I think I have the basics down. But I'm curious about one thing. The o
pening line for the GSP/BJ Penn fight is Georges St-Pierre -245 vs. B.J. Penn +175. If I understand this correctly, this means that a $245 bet on GSP results in a $100 profit, and a $100 bet on Penn results in a $175 profit.
My question is, why can't a savvy bettor hedge and come out ahead every time? For example, say I bet $100 on both fighters:
If GSP wins I win $140.82 and lose $100 to net $40.82.
If Penn wins, I win $275 and lose $100 to net $175.
So I come out ahead no matter who wins. This cannot be right; there is no way that I have stumbled on a foolproof moneymaking scheme. So what am I missing? Hidden commissions on placing bets? Have I misunderstood the explanation? Is my math bad? Do I need more caffeine today?
The sanity check is that if the GSP bet paid out $140.82 in profit on a $100 bet, you would be getting better than even money odds (1:1=$100 in profit), and it wouldn't make sense for both of the bets to pay out better than even money. The negative side of a moneyline bet is by definition worse than even money odds.
posted by burnmp3s at 1:13 PM on January 27